Hi,
Can anyone explain why the equity required for the full interest deductibility in Question 5 b) of F6 POL 2014 Dec was calculated as follows:
e = (100 million – e) * (1+ interest rate)/3?
e - equity 100 (million) - debt
I'm fully aware that the equity-to-debt ratio governing the application of this rule has changed from 1:3 to 1:1 since 01.01.2015, yet I can't seem to understand why the formula (after some reworks) would be
e / [(100 - e)*(1+i)] = 1:3
I'm puzzled by what's in the denominator. Why the excess interest portion (100-e) is multiplied by (1+i)? Why not simply:
e/100*(1+i) = 1:3
Interest are included because of the conservative approach.
